Free ACAMS CAMS Actual Exam Questions s
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valuable for?
Maybe A. Besides spotting suspicious stuff, these systems help businesses figure out how customers actually use their products, which is super useful for improving services.
A/C? Option C might stand out since proving effectiveness to the Board can be a key use beyond just spotting suspicious activity, especially in institutional settings.
structuring transactions, an anti-money laundering specialist should recommend
B imo, monitoring employees helps spot if issues continue or escalate before retraining.
C imo, retraining directly addresses the accidental issue without overreacting.
investigated by the country's financial intelligence unit (FIU). What should the AML compliance
officer do? (Select Two.)
Maybe A and E, since keeping leadership informed and cooperating fully with the FIU seems key.
Maybe A and C make sense here. Keeping leadership in the loop is key, and maintaining clear records helps track everything without jumping the gun on sharing info before any formal request.
Probably A makes the most sense because once there’s suspicion of fraud, banks have a regulatory duty to file a suspicious activity report. Waiting to investigate first (like in B) could delay compliance and potentially allow more harm. Plus, an SAR doesn’t mean the employee is guilty, it’s just a report for authorities to look into. Filing a police report (C) or suing (D) feels premature without more proof or internal findings. So, filing the SAR early protects the bank legally and helps keep things above board.
Maybe B is the better first step here. It makes sense for the bank to gather solid evidence before filing an SAR or involving authorities to avoid false accusations. Jumping straight to A without enough info could cause unnecessary trouble for the employee and the bank. Plus, investigations could reveal if it’s really suspicious activity or just a misunderstanding. Filing a police report (C) or civil litigation (D) seems way too premature without the investigation results. So, starting with B looks like the most cautious and practical move to me.
student wants to quickly buy the 800,000 USD home, which is overvalued, despite the
broker'sobjections to the asking price. Which real estate red flags should the broker identify? (Select
Three.)
C, E, F. The overvalued price (C) is a classic red flag for money laundering. The buyer rushing to close fast (F) despite objections also signals something off. Plus, canceling last minute but still pushing to buy quickly shows inconsistency (E). I don’t think anonymity (A) fits here since there’s no info on the buyer hiding their identity, and without payment details, structuring (B) is hard to say. Flow-through (D) usually involves multiple transactions moving money fast, which isn’t evident here either. The key is the overvaluation combined with the rush and inconsistency.
Maybe D fits too—flow through deals often hide money laundering by quickly moving funds through transactions. Since the buyer wants to rush a pricey, overvalued home despite warnings, it could be a flow-through warning. That gives us C, F, and D as solid picks for red flags. The cancellation due to illness also adds some inconsistency, but that might just be a legit excuse rather than a red flag. So I’d say focus on price (C), speed (F), and potential flow through (D).
anti-money laundering priority in making the decision to keep the account open?
Maybe A makes sense too because if closing the account hits the bank’s finances hard, they might hesitate even if there’s suspicion. Financial impact can weigh heavily in these decisions.
B/C? B is about assessing risk, which is key, but C could matter too since ongoing monitoring costs impact how realistically you can manage the account. Still, risk assessment usually trumps cost here.
correspondent account if a customer is involved in a predicate offense.The correspondent bank's
reply should be,
Maybe C, since the U.S. generally acts when laundering involves its jurisdiction directly.
Isn't D risky too since correspondent accounts can get caught up if funds touch U.S. soil?
dealer
affiliate in the case of an investigation?
C Sharing info depends a lot on privacy laws, regardless of due diligence or account status. If rules don’t allow it, the bank can’t just pass details along to their broker-dealer affiliate.
It’s D because even if both institutions want to share info, it matters if they actually have a relationship with the customer, like having an account or setting one up. Sharing details about someone who isn’t a client could raise issues. The question’s about investigation, so knowing the customer connection is essential before sharing anything sensitive. This seems like a basic but critical step before considering due diligence or privacy rules.
denomination U.S. bank notes to casas de cambio. They suspect that a Mexican syndicate is
operating a money laundering scheme in the bank’s jurisdiction.
Which two steps should be taken to trace funds through the bank to assist law enforcement in their
investigation? (Choose two.)
Option C is solid because spotting sequentially numbered monetary instruments in deposits signals structuring, a common laundering tactic. Pairing that with A makes sense since filing a suspicious transaction report is crucial for law enforcement.
Not B, since just spotting a decrease doesn’t really trace the funds or help law enforcement. C seems key because deposits with sequentially numbered instruments show possible structuring, and D tracks suspicious wire transfers out.
best describes the relationship between the internal audit function and compliance?
Maybe D is a bit extreme since keeping findings from compliance would hurt the whole point of fixing issues. Also, C is clearly out because combining compliance and audit would create conflicts. Between A and B, A makes more sense because assessing compliance risk fits well within internal audit’s scope, while B’s idea of excluding transaction reviews seems like it could miss important details. So I’d go with A here, as it aligns better with the idea that internal audit should cover compliance risks comprehensively.
A imo. The internal audit should assess compliance risks as part of its methodology, which makes sense for a thorough review. B sounds off since excluding transaction reviews limits the audit's effectiveness.
address in an anti-money laundering program?
I get why D looks odd since OFAC is more sanctions-focused than AML, but if you think about it, AML programs mainly target money laundering risks directly. A compliance officer (B) is usually essential because someone needs to oversee the program constantly, and training (C) helps keep staff alert to suspicious activity. Internal controls and policies (A) form the framework. So removing D makes sense as it’s more of a related but distinct area, not a core AML requirement per se. Does anyone think OFAC should be mandatory in every AML program regardless of jurisdiction?
A/B/C all seem like foundational parts of any AML program, so they’re probably not what the question wants. D stands out because OFAC is more about sanctions compliance, which overlaps but isn’t exactly the same as AML. So if you think about what’s strictly required for AML, a description of the OFAC program might not be mandatory. This fits with most global AML standards focusing on policies, training, and compliance officers but treating sanctions separately.
ofthe following reasons?
I’m thinking B fits best because offshore trusts are definitely used to reduce tax burdens, which is a main reason people use them offshore. D feels more like a consequence, not a reason. B
Maybe D works better here because offshore trusts are often used to manage and protect large sums discreetly, which is a key factor for wealthy individuals. It’s not just about tax—holding significant assets in a trust can help with control and confidentiality. A is definitely out since settlor info is usually private, and B is tempting but depends a lot on specific tax rules. C is wrong because offshore places are familiar with trusts. So D feels like the most straightforward reason related to the size and management of the assets.
Maybe D makes the most sense because someone’s role really determines what AML risks they face and how they should act, not just general or internal policy training.
Probably A, since internal policies are crucial beyond just basics.
between two parties in Europe and Asia. The payment is in Euros and involves the provision of
services to a company located in a jurisdiction subject to Office of Foreign Assets Control secondary
sanctions. Which factor is most important in determining the compliance officer's response?
C imo, since secondary sanctions target foreign parties regardless of US involvement.
Agree that C highlights the ongoing risk without a US link, but what about the role of the payment currency? Does using Euros instead of USD reduce exposure under OFAC’s secondary sanctions?
1. from a customer who has never conducted a transaction in cash before.
2. transacted in segments smaller than the reporting thresholds at various times during the day.
3. followed by an immediate wire transfer to an offshore secrecy haven.
4. by a customer who operates a cash-based business.
A/C versus D? I’m thinking 1 and 3 are definitely red flags—sudden cash from a non-cash customer and an immediate offshore transfer scream laundering. Including 4 though feels tricky; if the business is truly cash-based, large deposits might be normal. But D includes 2 (structuring), which is classic for laundering too, even with a cash business involved. So maybe the question expects you to consider that even legit-appearing cash businesses can be fronts, making D the better fit? Without more about the business’s legitimacy, I’d pick D over A or C.
Option 1 stands out because a sudden cash deposit from a usually non-cash customer is suspicious. But if the business in 4 is legit, that could explain big deposits. Not sure if 4 should be included here.