Question 1

Which one of the following is a typical entry criteria for testing?

Accepted Answer

B

Explanation: A typical entry criterion for testing is the availability of testable requirements. Testable requirements provide a basis for designing and executing test cases. Without clear and testable requirements, it is challenging to determine what needs to be tested and to create effective test cases. Entry criteria ensure that the necessary preconditions are met before testing begins, which helps in conducting efficient and effective testing. Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, Section 5.1.3, "Entry and Exit Criteria."

Question 2

Which of the following statements about checklist-based testing is TRUE?

Accepted Answer

D

Explanation: Checklist-based testing is a technique where testers use pre-determined checklists to ensure that important aspects of a work product are evaluated. Over time, these checklists should be reviewed and updated periodically to maintain their effectiveness in detecting defects. As systems evolve, outdated checklists may miss new types of defects, thus diminishing their usefulness. Therefore, statement D is true according to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus .

Question 3

To be able to define testable acceptance criteria, specific topics need to be addressed. In the table
below are the topics matched to an incorrect description. Match the topics (the left column) with the
correct description (the right column)
Topic
Description
A: Functional behaviour A: How the system performs the specific behaviour.
8: Quality characteristics
B: A sequence of actions between an external actor and the system,
to accomplish a specific goal or business task.
C: Scenarios
C: The externally observable behaviour with user actions as input operating under
certain configurations.
D: Business rules
D; Description of the connections between the system to be developed and
the outside world.
E: External interfaces
E: Activities that can only be performed in the system under certain
conditions defined by outside procedures and constraints.

Accepted Answer

A

Explanation: The correct matching of the topics with their descriptions is as follows: Functional behaviour: The externally observable behaviour with user actions as input operating under certain configurations (A to C). Quality characteristics: How the system performs the specific behaviour (B to A). Scenarios: A sequence of actions between an external actor and the system, to accomplish a specific goal or business task (C to B). Business rules: Activities that can only be performed in the system under certain conditions defined by outside procedures and constraints (D to E). External interfaces: Description of the connections between the system to be developed and the outside world (E to D) .

Question 4

As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if
a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and
after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall
ask the user to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device.
However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on
the device. Consider the following items:
[I].
Test environment
[ii].
Expected result
[iii].
Actual result.
[IV]
Test level.
[V].
Root cause.
Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to CORRECTLY
specify in a defect report?

Accepted Answer

B

Explanation: When writing a defect report, the tester can specify the expected result and the actual result based on the observation. The expected result is what the requirements specify, and the actual result is what was observed during testing. These elements are crucial for clearly communicating the nature of the defect to developers and other stakeholders. The other items such as test environment, test level, and root cause may not be clear or necessary at this stage of defect reporting. Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, Section on defect management and reporting.

Question 5

A test status report SHOULD:

Accepted Answer

A

Explanation: A test status report is a document that provides a snapshot of the testing activities and their progress during a particular period. It should include information about any impediments encountered during the test execution and the actions taken to resolve them, which helps stakeholders understand the challenges and how they were addressed . Option B describes an activity related to test completion rather than ongoing status reporting. Option C is incorrect because the structure and contents of the report may vary based on the audience's needs. Option D, while important, is not the primary purpose of a test status report, which focuses more on the current status and impediments.

Question 6

A typical objective of testing is to

Accepted Answer

B

Explanation: One of the primary objectives of testing is to ensure that the software or system being tested meets all regulatory requirements. This is crucial in many industries where compliance with laws and standards is mandatory. According to the ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0, testing aims to evaluate the quality of the software product and verify that it complies with specified requirements, including regulatory requirements .

Question 7

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required
configuration of the test environment for running such test case:
CTFL4 practice exam questions

Assume that C0NF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment Based on this assumption,
which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified
dependencies and allows minimising the number of switches between the different configurations of
the test environment^

Accepted Answer

A

Explanation: To determine the optimal test execution schedule that minimizes the number of configuration switches and respects the dependencies, we start with the initial configuration, CONF1. TC4: It has no dependencies and runs on CONF1 (initial configuration). TC3: Depends on TC4 and runs on CONF1. Since TC4 is already executed, we can proceed with TC3. TC2: Depends on TC4 and runs on CONF2. We switch to CONF2 after TC3. TC1: No dependencies and runs on CONF2. Since we are already in CONF2, we can execute TC1 next. TC5: Depends on TC1 and runs on CONF2. Since TC1 is already executed, we can proceed with TC5 without additional configuration switches. By following this sequence (TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1, TC5), we respect the dependencies and minimize the number of configuration switches

Question 8

During iteration planning, a scrum team uses an estimation technique called planning poker to
estimate the effort required to deliver a critical user story. In advance of the estimation session, the
team agreed on some ground rules to limit the number of poker rounds and save time.
The team agreed on the following:
1. They will use the following progression for estimation: Extra-small, Small, Medium, Large, Extra-
large, and Extra-extra-large.
2. If estimation values differ significantly, the highest score will be used for estimation purposes.
The result of the first round of planning poker:
Team Member Estimation
Business
Large
Development
Extra-extra-large
Testing Extra-extra-large
Which of the following options best represent the team’s next actions?

Accepted Answer

D

Explanation: In a planning poker session, if there is a significant difference in the estimations, it indicates that there may be misunderstandings or different perspectives on the complexity of the user story. According to the agile principles, the team should discuss these differences to reach a common understanding. The goal is to ensure that all team members have a shared understanding of the user story's scope and complexity before finalizing the estimate .

Question 9

Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

Accepted Answer

C

Explanation: A successful review process involves all participants being trained in the review type and understanding its objectives. This ensures that everyone can contribute effectively and understand what is expected from the review. Proper training helps to identify defects accurately and facilitates constructive feedback, leading to a more efficient and effective review process. Hence, statement C is correct according to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus .

Question 10

Which of the following statements about retrospectives is TRUE?

Accepted Answer

D

Explanation: Retrospectives are a crucial part of Agile practices, aiming to identify process improvements and determine how to implement them effectively. They should involve participants discussing not only what improvements could be made but also how to integrate and sustain those improvements within the project context, including the software development lifecycle. This makes statement D accurate according to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus .

Question 11

Consider an estimation session in which a six-member Agile team (Memb1..... Memb6) uses the
planning poker technique to estimate a user story (in story points). The team members will use a set
of cards with the following values: 1,2, 3,5, 8,13,21. Below is the outcome of the first round of
estimation for this session:
CTFL4 practice exam questions

Which of the following answers BEST describes how the estimation session should proceed?

Accepted Answer

D

Explanation: In Agile teams using the planning poker technique for estimating user stories, it is common practice to have further discussions and rounds of estimation if there is a significant discrepancy in the initial estimates. This helps in reaching a consensus and ensures that all team members understand the complexity and requirements of the user story. According to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus, planning poker involves discussions to clarify differences in estimates, especially when there is a wide range of values selected. By having Memb6 and Memb4, who provided the most pessimistic and optimistic estimates, explain their reasoning, it fosters a deeper understanding and encourages the team to converge towards a more accurate and agreed-upon estimate. Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, Section on Agile methodologies and estimation techniques.

Question 12

Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is FALSE?

Accepted Answer

C

Explanation: A typical test plan includes various elements, such as resource requirements, test completion criteria, and suspension/resumption criteria. However, the list of product risks that have not been fully mitigated is generally not included in the test plan but rather in the risk management documentation. The test plan focuses on planning and executing tests, including resource allocation and defining criteria for test suspension and resumption. While risk management is crucial, unmitigated risks are typically documented in risk logs or separate risk management plans. Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Chapter 5.1.1, Test Planning .

Question 13

Which of the following is a test task that usually occurs during test implementation?

Accepted Answer

A

Explanation: A test task that usually occurs during test implementation is to make sure the planned test environment is ready to be delivered. The test environment is the hardware and software configuration on which the tests are executed, and it should be as close as possible to the production environment where the software system will operate. The test environment should be planned, prepared, and verified before the test execution, to ensure that the test conditions, the test data, the test tools, and the test interfaces are available and functional. The other options are not test tasks that usually occur during test implementation, but rather test tasks that occur during other test activities, such as: Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests: This is a test task that usually occurs during test analysis and design, which is the activity of analyzing the test basis, designing the test cases, and identifying the test data. During this activity, the testers can use techniques such as root cause analysis, defect prevention, or defect analysis, to find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the previous tests, and to prevent or reduce the occurrence of similar failures in the future tests. Archive the testware for use in future test projects: This is a test task that usually occurs during test closure, which is the activity of finalizing and reporting the test results, evaluating the test process, and identifying the test improvement actions. During this activity, the testers can archive the testware, which are the test artifacts produced during the testing process, such as the test plan, the test cases, the test data, the test results, the defect reports, etc., for use in future test projects, such as regression testing, maintenance testing, or reuse testing. Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project: This is a test task that usually occurs during test monitoring and control, which is the activity of tracking and reviewing the test progress, status, and quality, and taking corrective actions when necessary. During this activity, the testers can gather the metrics, which are the measurements of the testing process, such as the test coverage, the defect density, the test effort, the test duration, etc., that are used to guide the test project, such as planning, estimating, scheduling, reporting, or improving the testing process. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents: ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.1, Test Planning1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.2, Test Monitoring and Control1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.3, Test Analysis and Design1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.4, Test Implementation1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.5, Test Execution1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.6, Test Closure1 ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test Environment, Test Condition, Test Data, Test Tool, Test Interface, Failure, Root Cause Analysis, Defect Prevention, Defect Analysis, Testware, Regression Testing, Maintenance Testing, Reuse Testing, Test Coverage, Defect Density, Test Effort, Test Duration2

Question 14

Which two of the following statements describe the advantages provided by good traceability
between the test basis and test work products?
I . Analyzing the impact of changes.
ii . A measure of code quality.
iii . Accurate test estimation.
iv . Making testing auditable.
Select the

Accepted Answer

Explanation: Good traceability between the test basis and test work products provides several advantages: i. Analyzing the impact of changes: Traceability allows for easy identification of which parts of the test work products will be affected by changes in the requirements or design, facilitating impact analysis. iv . Making testing auditable: Traceability ensures that there is a clear connection between the requirements and the test cases, which makes the testing process auditable and provides evidence that all requirements have been tested .

Question 15

During which main group of test activity are the following tasks performed?
•
Checking test results and logs against specified coverage criteria.
•
Assessing the level of component or system quality based on test results and logs.
•
Determining whether more tests are needed.
Select the

Accepted Answer

Explanation: The activities of checking test results and logs against specified coverage criteria, assessing the level of component or system quality based on test results and logs, and determining whether more tests are needed fall under the category of test monitoring and control. This phase involves ongoing assessment and adjustment of the test activities to ensure they meet the test objectives and quality goals .

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